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Mechanics}Wave Phenomena


One can solve this problem without knowing anything about mechanics (but with just the barest idea of wave phenomenon theory). Following the hint, one considers the limiting cases:

M\rightarrow \infty \Rightarrow \mu/M \rightarrow 0... With an infinite M, the string is basically fixed on the rod, and its wavelength is just \lambda=L. One eliminates choice (A) from the fact that \cos 2\pi = 1 \neq 0, as \mu/M demands in this regime.

M\rightarrow 0 \Rightarrow \mu/M \rightarrow \infty... Without the presence of the mass M, one has \lambda = 4L. Thus, 2\pi L/\lambda=\pi/2. Since \tan x = \sin x/\cos x and \cos \pi/2 = 0, one finds that choice (B) is the only one that fits this condition.

See below for user comments and alternate solutions! See below for user comments and alternate solutions!
Alternate Solutions
Herminso
2009-09-21 12:54:05
Consider the motion of the end attached to the ring of mass M:

-T\sin {\theta}=M\ddot{y},

where T is the tension of the right end of the string applied directly on M making a small \theta angle with the horizontal, such that

\sin {\theta}\simeq\sin {\theta}=\frac{\triangle y}{\triangle x}=\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}.

By other hand we know that the string is making a harmonic oscilation of the form y=A\sin {kx}+B\cos {kx}, where B=0 since the left end of the string is fixed, y(x=0)=0. Thus,

\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}=Ak\cos {kx} and \ddot{y}=-Ak^2\dot{x}^2\sin {kx}+A\ddot{x}k \cos {kx},

with \ddot{x}=0 since the wave on the string go at constant velocity given by v^2=\dot{x}^2=T/\mu.

Substituting above,

-T(Ak\cos {kx})=M(-Ak^2\frac{T}{\mu}\sin {kx}) \Rightarrow \mu/M=k\tan {kx},

but M is restricted to move only at x=L, thus \mu/M=k\tan {kL}.
Alternate Solution - Unverified
Comments
Herminso
2009-09-21 12:54:05
Consider the motion of the end attached to the ring of mass M:

-T\sin {\theta}=M\ddot{y},

where T is the tension of the right end of the string applied directly on M making a small \theta angle with the horizontal, such that

\sin {\theta}\simeq\sin {\theta}=\frac{\triangle y}{\triangle x}=\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}.

By other hand we know that the string is making a harmonic oscilation of the form y=A\sin {kx}+B\cos {kx}, where B=0 since the left end of the string is fixed, y(x=0)=0. Thus,

\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}=Ak\cos {kx} and \ddot{y}=-Ak^2\dot{x}^2\sin {kx}+A\ddot{x}k \cos {kx},

with \ddot{x}=0 since the wave on the string go at constant velocity given by v^2=\dot{x}^2=T/\mu.

Substituting above,

-T(Ak\cos {kx})=M(-Ak^2\frac{T}{\mu}\sin {kx}) \Rightarrow \mu/M=k\tan {kx},

but M is restricted to move only at x=L, thus \mu/M=k\tan {kL}.
Alternate Solution - Unverified
socks
2008-09-17 10:06:09
No explicit knowledge of the modes in the M\rightarrow 0 limit is necessary.

From the M\rightarrow\infty limit we see that there must be modes for \lambda=2L/n where n is a positive integer. This narrows the choices down to B, C, or D. Choice D is ruled out immediately as we suspect there must be a dependence on the mass of the ring.

In the M\rightarrow 0 limit, we see that C allows for no modes since the LHS goes to infinity and the RHS is bounded (except for \lambda\rightarrow 0). The only physical intuition required to obtain choice B is that there must still exist standing modes even for a massless ring.
NEC
FortranMan
2008-09-03 17:07:15
for me, the first key was to realize that rapid movement of the string (short wavelength) would require a light ring mass, hence M \propto \lambda. Then remember tan \theta = \frac{x}{y} and \frac{\lambda \mu}{2 \pi M} corresponds to components of the wave.NEC
panos85
2007-10-23 01:32:08
There is a (minor) inaccuracy in this solution. As M goes to \infty we have nodes on both sides so every wavelength of the form \lambda=\frac{2L}{k} with k=1,2,... is acceptable. (Remember the standing waves.) In a similar way, when M=0, every wavelength of the form: \lambda=\frac{4L}{2k+1} with k=0,1,2,... is acceptable. The answer B is the only one that is satisfied when you plug in these values.NEC
dumbguy
2007-10-18 21:52:06
can we still get a better explanation why when M goes to zero lambda=L/4NEC
Mexicana
2007-10-05 14:36:55
I think there's a mistake in the relation for the fundamental harmonic that you are quoting. Instead this should be L=\lambda/4 for M\rightarrow 0 (open end) and L=\lambda/2 for M\rightarrow \infty (closed end). In this way the limiting conditions are both satisfied by choice (B)
Lego
2009-01-17 11:50:03
Excellent! This is what i had in mind too!
NEC
cyberdeathreaper
2007-02-04 19:53:47
Also, can someone explain why the wavelength is 4L when M approaches zero?
hamood
2007-04-11 21:36:40
when m approaches zero
node on the left and antinode on the right
L = lambda/4
wavelength = 4L
Answered Question!
cyberdeathreaper
2007-02-04 19:43:37
It's unclear to me why the wavelengths of the standing waves have to be of any specified value. For example, when M approaches infinity, the wavelength could be 2L, L, 2L/3, etc...
hamood
2007-04-11 21:39:14
when m is very large you have nodes on both ends

Answered Question!
chri5tina
2006-11-28 06:23:44
answer A) has a cotangent in it, not a cosine.Typo Alert!
buddy.epson
2006-10-14 14:18:57
With M>>mu, lambda=2L, as the antinode is in the center at L/2. That gives the term tan(pi)=0, what you want for the limiting case in (b). Typo Alert!
alpha
2005-11-07 01:51:52
Good idea.NEC

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answer A) has a cotangent in it, not a cosine.

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