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GR9277 #33 |
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Alternate Solutions |
qu 2008-10-13 07:24:52 | R1, R2 and R5 are in series just ignoring the R3 and R4 parallel block. Equivalent (R1,R2,R5) is 130 ohm. Current through them is i=v(3)/Req(130)=0.02. Now the parallel block has equivalent rsistance as Req1=(1/R3+1/R4)^-1. Voltage drop across parallel bloc is therefore V=i*Req1(20ohm); which is 0.4 approx. so choice is (A) |  | chrisfizzix 2008-10-06 12:11:04 | I hate all those annoying reciprocal relations. Here's a way to solve the problem while doing as little annoying circuit manipulations as possible, and instead using some simple relations.
Find the equivalent resistance of || : ohms.
So, the total resistance of the right branch is 20 + 30 = 50 ohms.
Find the equivalent resistance of the whole circuit: this is straightforward if you remember that two equal resistors in parallel give you one resistor of half the value. So, our total resistance is 75 ohms.
Find the current: 3.0 volts / 75 ohms = 1/25 amps.
Find the voltage drop across : this is easy: 2.0 V.
Now we know that the voltage across the right branch is 1.0 V, and that half the total current is flowing through the branch as the resistance of the middle and right branches are equal.
The voltage drop across is V. So, we know the voltage drop over the top portion of the right branch: 1.0 V - 0.6 V = 0.4V, choice A. |  |
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Comments |
infiniteseries 2008-10-29 19:37:59 | there seems to be an error with this image. Just a heads up. |  | qu 2008-10-13 07:24:52 | R1, R2 and R5 are in series just ignoring the R3 and R4 parallel block. Equivalent (R1,R2,R5) is 130 ohm. Current through them is i=v(3)/Req(130)=0.02. Now the parallel block has equivalent rsistance as Req1=(1/R3+1/R4)^-1. Voltage drop across parallel bloc is therefore V=i*Req1(20ohm); which is 0.4 approx. so choice is (A) |  | qu 2008-10-13 07:23:55 | R1, R2 and R5 are in series just ignoring the R3 and R4 parallel block. Equivalent (R1,R2,R5) is 130 ohm. Current through them is i=v(3)/Req(130)=0.02. Now the parallel block has equivalent rsistance as Req1=(1/R3+1/R4)^-1. Voltage drop across parallel bloc is therefore V=i*Req1(20ohm); which is 0.4 approx. so choice is (A) |  | chrisfizzix 2008-10-06 12:11:04 | I hate all those annoying reciprocal relations. Here's a way to solve the problem while doing as little annoying circuit manipulations as possible, and instead using some simple relations.
Find the equivalent resistance of || : ohms.
So, the total resistance of the right branch is 20 + 30 = 50 ohms.
Find the equivalent resistance of the whole circuit: this is straightforward if you remember that two equal resistors in parallel give you one resistor of half the value. So, our total resistance is 75 ohms.
Find the current: 3.0 volts / 75 ohms = 1/25 amps.
Find the voltage drop across : this is easy: 2.0 V.
Now we know that the voltage across the right branch is 1.0 V, and that half the total current is flowing through the branch as the resistance of the middle and right branches are equal.
The voltage drop across is V. So, we know the voltage drop over the top portion of the right branch: 1.0 V - 0.6 V = 0.4V, choice A. |  | energy69 2007-10-14 20:39:53 | solution is so much more complicated then it needs to be. \...
sawtooth 2007-11-02 13:35:32 |
Indeed it is. Btw, doesn't "voltage across" mean the voltage drop?Anyway. Since one has found that the current going through is 1/50 A just multiply by to find a 0.6V drop (the same in both resistors. You can find the two respective currents and apply for if you dont believe, but in the end you are using the fact that the voltage drop is the same. I dont know why the official solution uses .
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|  | ec2250 2007-08-27 11:05:05 | I don't understand why the current across R2 is I. Wouldn't the current have split from I1 to I2 and I3 when the initial current reached the first junction? To clarify, I'm confused at the part where we find the voltage across R2. According to the loop rule, wouldn't it be V - I1R1 - I2R2 = 0?
D8less 2007-10-05 21:27:15 |
You are right. The author of the above answer mistyped it. The second comment from the bottom mentions there is an error in the result that V2=2 using i1=i2. The correct correction is that i1=2i1 as you said.
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|  | hamood 2007-04-02 13:29:37 | combined resistance of R3 and R4 is 20. So both the right arm and the middle arm have the same resistance of 50 ohms. Half the current goes through each, meaning I = 3/150. So drop across R4= drop across R3= IR = 3/150 * 20 = 0.4 V |  | bterranova 2006-11-02 09:49:28 | typo on the typo
R34^-1=1/20 |  | bterranova 2006-11-02 09:46:07 | Another typo:
R34^-1=(1/30+1/60)^-1 |  | comorado 2006-10-26 01:23:22 | Another mistyp: instead of  |  | comorado 2006-10-26 01:13:28 | Must be ^{-1}+R_5)^{-1}+\frac{1}{R_2})
Instead of ^{-1}+R_5)^{-1}+\frac{1}{R_2}) |  |
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