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Quantum Mechanics}Probability Density Current


If one has forgotten the expression for the probability density current, then one needs not despair! If one remembers the vaguest definition of a ``probability current," one can solve this problem without the usage of the forgotten formula:

Recall that the probability current density J is the difference between incoming P(in) and outgoing P(out) probability densities. This is just the difference between the probability densities of a rightwards moving plane wave and a leftwards moving plane wave, since the probability density is related to the wave function by


The given wave function can be written in terms of plane waves,



gives the coefficient for the leftwards (negative-direction) wave, while gives the coefficient for the rightwards traveling wave. The probability density for each wave is given by,



Plugging these quantities into the formula for the probability current density above (J), one gets,

which is choice (E).



Alternatively:

The formal expression for the probability current density can be effortlessly derived from recalling the definition of probability and Schrodinger's Equation---both of which every physics (or engineering) major should know by heart.

Probability is defined (in the Born Interpretation) as P=\int |\Psi(x,t)|^2 dx. One should recall that |A|^2=A^*A=AA^* in general (to wit: the absolute value squared of a complex expression is itself times its complex conjugate).

The time-dependent Schrodinger's Equation is

\hbar i \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t}=H\Psi=-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\Psi^{''}+V\Psi,

where H=-\hbar^2/2m \frac{\partial}{\partial x}+V has the form of the familiar time-independent Hamiltonian. From this, one finds that \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}=\frac{-i}{\hbar}\left( -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\Psi^{''}+V\Psi  \right).

Generalizing the idea of a current from classical physics to the idea of a probability current, one takes the time derivative of the probability to get \frac{d}{dt}P =\frac{d}{dt} \int |\psi|^2 dx =\int \frac{d}{dt} |\psi|^2 dx=\int \left(\psi \frac{\partial \psi^*}{\partial t}+\psi^* \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}\right)dx, where the product-rule for baby-math derivatives has been used and the derivative has been taken inside the integral because the integral and derivative are with respect to different variables.

Plugging in the expression for \dot{\psi} from the Schrodinger's Equation, one gets

dP/dt= \int \left(\Psi \frac{i}{\hbar}\left( -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\Psi^{*''}+V\Psi^*  \right)+\Psi^* \frac{-i}{\hbar}\left( -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\Psi^{''}+V\Psi  \right)\right)dx,

where the terms involving V's cancel out, and thus,

dP/dt = \int \frac{i}{\hbar}\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left( -\Psi\Psi^{*''}+  \Psi^*\Psi^{''}\right)dx = \frac{i\hbar}{2m}\int\left( -\Psi\Psi^{*''}+  \Psi^*\Psi^{''}\right)dx

Rewriting \int \left( -\Psi\Psi^{*''}+  \Psi^*\Psi^{''}\right)dx = \int \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left( -\Psi\Psi^{*'}+  \Psi^*\Psi^{'}\right)dx, one can eliminate the integral in the probability current by applying the fundamental theorem of calculus (to wit: \int_a^b \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}dx = \psi(b)-\psi(a)),

dP/dt=\frac{i\hbar}{2m}\left( -\Psi\Psi^{*'}+  \Psi^*\Psi^{'}\right). But, since the probability current is usually define as dP/dt = J(a)-J(b), one has

dP/dt = \frac{i\hbar}{2m}\left(\Psi\Psi^{*'}-  \Psi^*\Psi^{'}\right).

(Aside:) One can print-out a cool poster or decent T-shirt iron-on to remember the Schrodinger's Equation (among other miscellanai) at a site the current author made several years ago,
\begin{quote} http://anequationisforever.com/ds.php
\end{quote}
One can remember the general form of the probability current by recalling that it has to do with the difference of \Psi times its conjugate.

Right, so onwards with the problem:

The problem gives the wave function, so one needs just chunk out the math to arrive at the final answer,

\Psi^{'} = e^{i\omega t} k \left( -\alpha  \sin(kx) +\beta \cos(kx) \right)

\Psi^{*'}=e^{-i\omega t}k \left( -\alpha  \sin(kx) +\beta \cos(kx) \right)

Thus,

\Psi^{*}\Psi^{'}=k \left( \alpha^{*} \cos(kx) +\beta^{*} \sin(kx) \right) \left( -\alpha  \sin(kx) +\beta \cos(kx) \right) and,

\Psi \Psi^{*'}=k \left( \alpha \cos(kx) +\beta \sin(kx) \right) \left( -\alpha^{*}  \sin(kx) +\beta^{*} \cos(kx) \right), where one notes that the imaginary terms go to unity from the complex conjugate.

Plugging this into the probability current, one arrives at the expression for choice (E).


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Comments
The_Duck
2010-07-05 19:52:12
Here's an instant solution if you can think of it: if alpha and beta are real (or if either equals zero, as ramparts mentioned), then I believe psi describes a stationary state and there should be no probability current. This immediately gives E, because C and D don't care whether alpha and beta are real or not (and A can't be right).

Another approach is to notice that if alpha = 1 and beta = i then you can simplify to the familiar form psi = exp(i[wt + kx]) which is a state with momentum eigenvalue -hbar*k. For a normalized momentum eigenstate like this I believe you can equate the probability current with the velocity, p/m = -hbar*k/m. Plugging these values of alpha and beta into the answers gives E.

Of course, I didn't think of either of these under time pressure. :/
NEC
ramparts
2009-10-02 12:11:54
Oh, I think the probability current should go to 0 if \beta=0, no? That would only leave A and E (and A is just wrong ;) ).
niux
2009-11-04 19:23:14
nice
NEC
ramparts
2009-10-02 12:10:48
1.8 minutes per problem.

I have yet to see a satisfactory answer to this problem for people who *don't* have the probability current memorized.
NEC
poop
2005-12-08 15:44:00
Umm, I think there's an error in your sweet iron-on t-shirt. On the blackboard, doesn't the Schrodinger Equation have a second derivative in x, rather than a first derivative??

:-)
NEC
keflavich
2005-11-11 19:41:37
That's a sweet 'effortless' derivation =PNEC

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