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GR9277 #57 |
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Alternate Solutions |
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Comments |
Maxwells_Demon 2008-09-21 08:48:59 | Given the negative sign in Faraday's Law, wouldn't the induced emf in choice (A) be negative at t=0 rather than positive? |  | boundforthefloor 2006-11-20 23:09:45 | herrphysik is right, I'd like to add the formula clarification /\Delta(t)=\Delta\Phi/\Delta t)
agaliarept 2006-12-01 18:11:03 |
Thank you. Just what I needed.
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|  | Andresito 2006-03-28 07:01:54 | I thought that choice (B) was the correct one.
The change in the flux "with" respect to time at t=0s is zero. The only graph that show this is (B).
Intead of saying, "The change in flux is constantly increasing as the loop spins into the field, and it is constantly decreasing as it spins out of the field" it would be better to say that "the flux change is discontinous".
herrphysik 2006-08-24 20:47:18 |
The result would be something like (B) if Faraday's Law said that the emf were proportional to the total magnetic flux through the circuit, but it doesn't. It says that the emf is proportional to the RATE OF CHANGE OF MAGNETIC FLUX, and the circuit here being a semi-circle spinning with constant angular velocity, the rate of chage of magnetic flux is CONSTANT.
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