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GR9277 #51
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Alternate Solutions |
radicaltyro
2006-10-30 23:17:29 | As Griffiths says, "As Peter Lorre would say, Do it ze kveek vay, Johnny!'".  but  for the infinite square well, so  . |  |
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Comments |
radicaltyro
2006-10-30 23:17:29 | As Griffiths says, "As Peter Lorre would say, Do it ze kveek vay, Johnny!'". but for the infinite square well, so . | | tera
2006-08-21 05:28:40 | The expectation value of p is zero because otherwise the particle would tend either to go to the right or left and leave the well potential which is impossible!!!!! |  | jcain6
2005-11-22 18:58:36 | The expectation value of p must be real. When the integral is set up, complex number i can be factored out to the front of the integral. With i in front of the integral the only way for the expectation value of p to be real is for the integral to produce imaginary numbers or for the integral to equal zero. Since there is no hope that the integral will produce complex numbers in this case the expectation value of p must be zero. Just a way to save a little time!
a19grey2
2008-11-02 11:13:07 |
Yeah, this is the fastest way for me to do it. Also, it applies more generally and it says that the expectation of the momentum will be zero any time that the derviative with respect to x doesn't bring out any factors of i.
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