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GR0177 #34
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Alternate Solutions |
thebigshow500 2008-10-12 16:10:18 | Just Check out Griffiths p.502 - "The invariant interval." Everything is super clear there.
Mr. Griffiths derives the result of interval between two events as I = 
I < 0 refers to timelike interval. Two events occur simultaneously.
I > 0 refers to spacelike interval. Two events occur at the same place.
I = 0 refers to lightike interval. Two events are connected by a signal traveling at c!
For this question, I > 0, so the term dominates . One can deduct the answer (C)!!
|  | ivalmian 2008-03-25 19:02:24 | You can also show this through a little math.
We know that for 2 arbitrary reference frames and , the time intervals between the two events is:

Plugging in , , , and we get:

If in the event is perceived as simultaneous, then . Thus we get:

Dividing by we get:

Adding to both sides we get:

And taking square root we get:

And since this means:

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Comments |
thebigshow500 2008-10-12 16:10:18 | Just Check out Griffiths p.502 - "The invariant interval." Everything is super clear there.
Mr. Griffiths derives the result of interval between two events as I = 
I < 0 refers to timelike interval. Two events occur simultaneously.
I > 0 refers to spacelike interval. Two events occur at the same place.
I = 0 refers to lightike interval. Two events are connected by a signal traveling at c!
For this question, I > 0, so the term dominates . One can deduct the answer (C)!!
thebigshow500 2008-10-12 16:15:53 |
Correction:
I < 0 refers to timelike interval. Two events occur at the same place.
I > 0 refers to spacelike interval. Two events occur simultaneously.
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thebigshow500 2008-10-12 16:17:15 |
Correction:
I < 0 refers to timelike interval. Two events occur at the same place.
I > 0 refers to spacelike interval. Two events occur simultaneously.
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goldenkid314 2009-04-02 06:37:27 |
It is actually:
I < 0 refers to timelike interval. Two events occur at the same place and are separated by an interval of time.
I > 0 refers to spacelike interval. Two events occur at the same time and are separated only in space.
The definition you give would lead to answer b) being correct, which it is not.
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|  | ivalmian 2008-03-25 19:02:24 | You can also show this through a little math.
We know that for 2 arbitrary reference frames and , the time intervals between the two events is:

Plugging in , , , and we get:

If in the event is perceived as simultaneous, then . Thus we get:

Dividing by we get:

Adding to both sides we get:

And taking square root we get:

And since this means:

joe35 2008-06-27 14:56:42 |
This is a nice solution. It might help to clarify that and refer to the Lorentz scalar distance, between two events, which is the same in all inertial reference frames.
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Prologue 2009-10-23 13:27:30 |
This last line should be .
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Prologue 2009-10-23 13:28:39 |
This last line should be .
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Kentai 2009-11-06 14:34:43 |
It is slightly easier then that...
you have dx^2 - (c^2 *dt^2) = dx'^2
factorize dt^2 out from the left hand side, the eqn becomes dt^2 ((dx/dt)^2 - c^2) = dx'^2
it is obvious that dx/dt has to be greater then c in order to get a positive dx'^2
(too lazy to follow the latex syntax...)
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|  | keflavich 2005-11-10 12:22:03 | should be squared, I think. You can also remember that for an observer to say that two events happened at the same time, they can't have a causal relationship, and therefore their spatial separation has to be greater than . i.e. if (if you use a Minkowski diagram with time on the y-axis, these signs are correct)
yosun 2005-11-10 12:34:06 |
keflavich: thanks for the typo-alert; the typo is now corrected.
i'm planning on posting diagrams sometimes during winter break.meanwhile, here's an open call to other users for submitting diagrams... email them as gif/jpg attachments to yosun(at)nusoy(dot)com.
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